So, I've learned that drunk people cannot consent to sex.
In the situation outlined in the thread title - are they both rapists AND rape victims?
Let's say they wake up in the morning and express satisfaction for what went down.
Is consent retroactively given, then?
Or are they both rapists, both raped, but simply choose not to press charges?
I'm not asking about legalities. I'm asking something about your opinions.
This all stems out of reading, over and over again, that intoxicated people truly cannot give consent for sex (or, presumably, much else - but that's a different issue).
That's interesting, because I think most of us here have had tons of sex with drunk people or as drunk people, without giving express consent beforehand.
I'm trying to figure out how to know if/when I've been a rapist in the past.