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276 hits Rate me! Share Favorite | Flag 12 years ago by falconwing

Is it fair that a person can be found `Not Guilty` in a criminal court, and then held to be liable in civil court for essentially the same thing?

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12 yrs ago, 11 mos ago - Friday 10/5/07 - 10:22:57 PM EST (GMT-5)
The requirements for ciriminal court are much stricter (beyond a reasonable doubt) than the requirements for civil court (preponderance of evidence).

Very few cases go to both criminal and civil court. The OJ Simpson case is the only one that I'm aware of.

12 yrs ago, 11 mos ago - Friday 10/5/07 - 11:29:02 PM EST (GMT-5)
Yes it's fair. I can give no good reason why though other than that's the way the law is written.
12 yrs ago, 11 mos ago - Friday 10/5/07 - 11:47:55 PM EST (GMT-5)
This is similar to me to the issue of Free Speech. It's protected by the 1st Amendment -- you can't be thrown in jail, for example, merely for speaking your mind -- but you can be sued for slander. You have the right to speak your mind, then, but that doesn't preclude civil consequences if you tread on the rights of others.
12 yrs ago, 11 mos ago - Saturday 10/6/07 - 12:26:01 AM EST (GMT-5)
Obviously the law thinks it's fair.
12 yrs ago, 6 mos ago - Tuesday 3/11/08 - 5:55:53 PM EST (GMT-5)
That doesn't sound too fair..

It's like.. "You're not guilty!" "REALLY?!" "Haha, no we lied.."
12 yrs ago, 6 mos ago - Tuesday 3/11/08 - 8:39:17 PM EST (GMT-5)
It's kind of weird I guess
12 yrs ago, 3 mos ago - Monday 6/2/08 - 11:48:05 AM EST (GMT-5)

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